Hello. I'm doing coherence 1xN analysis of a group of data and I would like to ask if it is correct/necessary to make 'standarize-baseline normatization-event related perturbation' before or after the coherence analysis. In both cases (doing it before and after), the results (.TF) are not between 0-1.
Thank you very much
Similar to this other post: Standardization for imaginary coherence, the standardization approach really depends on the research question that you are trying to address.
Thanks Raymundo. In this study I have to contrast samples (controls and schizophrenia patients) and I am trying to compare beta and gamma coherence between F7 and temporal electrodes 500 ms before saying the vowel 'ah'. I have a total temporal window of 1000 ms before talking and -1000/-650 ms as baseline. My doubt would now be if it is correct to do the baseline normalization after the coherence analysis because the resulting values are not between 0 and 1. If you could help me by giving me a hint that would be great. Thanks